From: David L. Moore (dvdmoore@ix.netcom.com)
Date: Mon Jul 13 1998 - 19:38:41 EDT
At 02:18 PM 7/13/98 -0400, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>At 9:29 AM -0700 7/13/98, dalmatia@eburg.com wrote:
>>Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>>
>>> (1) Paul's interpretation of the phrase which he cites from Hab 2:4 as hO
>>> DE DIKAIOS EK PISTEWS ZHSETAI--and which I think ought properly to be
>>> construed by taking EK PISTEWS with ZHSETAI--certainly appears to be
>>> understood by Paul in Rom 1:17ff in such a way that EK PISTEWS functions
>>> adjectivally with hO DIKAIOS.
>>
>>When a modifier lies between two terms like this [here between the
>>subject and the verb], I have always taken it to 'distribute' to
>>[modify] both, unless otherwise contraindicated. Why does it have to
>>be one or the other? The subject is united with the action of the
>>verb, and the prepositional phrase [EK PISTEWS] modifies that unity.
>>Are we imposing an understanding of either-or that is not appropriate
>>to the Greek usage?
>
>Certainly not AUTOMATICALLY. As I said earlier, in classical Attic you
>would not find a prepositional phrase qualifying hO DIKAIOS unless there
>were a hO added before the EK PISTEWS: i.e. the phrase would have to be ho
>DIKAIOS hO EK PISTEWS. BDF#255, if I understand it rightly, allows omission
>of the article only with traditional phrases--and I don't think this
>instance classifies as such.
>
In checking Grammars on this, I found an instance in Robertson where the
prepositional phrase KAQ' hUPERBOLHN is apparently used adjectivally
(Robertson, p. 551). The passage is 1Cor. 12:31 which reads KAI ETI KAQ'
hUPERBOLHN hODON hUMIN DEIKNUMI. But this seems far removed from our
examples and doesn't appear to justify taking EN DUNAMEI with hUIOU QEOU in
Rom. 1:4.
David Moore
David L. Moore
Miami, Florida, USA
E-mail: dvdmoore@ix.netcom.com
Home Page: http://members.aol.com/dvdmoore
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