Re: Rom. 1:4 EN DUNAMEI adverbial or adjectival

From: David L. Moore (dvdmoore@ix.netcom.com)
Date: Thu Jul 16 1998 - 22:46:49 EDT


At 08:59 AM 7/16/98 -0700, you wrote:

>Well, ya know... Ambiguity, you see ~ Is kinda like ~ !!The proof!!
>:-) 'Tis a self confessed prejudice, after all ~ And I am not
>scholarly enough to provide you with examples 'proving unambiguously'
>my point. And I am not sure that such proof is possible, given the
>radical difference in approach to understanding.
>
>I have no idea in these two passages which is to be taken how, in
>terms of either-or. I don't even care just now, because the grammar
>is at issue. [I really am unlearned in GNT!! Trust me on this one!]
>
>And I do understand your inadmittance of the hOLON take on this
>construction, and am simply asking WHY?
>
>Why MUST it be either-or?

        Well, I'll have to say that these are the categories I have available from
my study of Greek grammar and syntax - and grammars of other languages for
that matter. I'd be willing to consider the additional categories you
postulate but would need to see some examples to be able to accept them as
valid. I think that sometimes intentional ambiguity is a part of the text;
some would read Jn. 3:3 ff. in this way. But if we read ambiguity where
none was meant, we risk missing the point of the text we are dealing with.

Regards,
David Moore

David L. Moore
Miami, Florida, USA
E-mail: dvdmoore@ix.netcom.com
Home Page: http://members.aol.com/dvdmoore

            

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