From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Thu Jul 23 1998 - 10:26:39 EDT
At 03:21 PM 7/23/98 +0300, you wrote:
>Howdy..
>
>I would like to know your opinion whether or not the phrase TWN
>GRAMMATEWN KAI FARISAIWN in Matt 5:20 is an example of
>Granville-Sharp rule i.e. speaks of the same person ...
>
>Thus is the next translation adequate or not:
>
>"For I say to you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the
>Scribes i.e. Pharisees, you will not enter the kingdom of heaven."
>
>Timo Flink
I think so. I take it as a dscription of two groups- i.e., the scribes
(lawyers) and the pharisees. Yet the genitive indicates "the scribes OF the
pharisees"- i.e., the lawyers who happened to be adherents of the Pharisaic
persuasion.
So, in my humble estimation, if you have a text using the genitive you may
indeed have one thing whereas the absence of the genitive may indicate
something else.
Best,
Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
jwest@highland.net
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