From: Ed Gorham (egorham@ackerley.com)
Date: Wed Aug 12 1998 - 10:10:17 EDT
A few days ago I posted a textual question and got no response. This leads
me believe that either A.) There are no textual critics out there (which I
don't believe), or B.) it was a really dumb question (a distinct
possibility!).
I'll try again.
Can a corrector manuscript (say, D1) always be classified in the same
category (ala Aland's categories 1-5) as its exemplar? Asked the other
way, can a manuscript be so "corrected" that it it actaully shifts
categories?
While I've been doing Greek for a while, I'm new to the textual-critical
aspect, so any guidance here would be welcome.
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