Re: Concord of Gender and Number

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Fri Aug 21 1998 - 12:58:24 EDT


James P. Ware wrote:
>
> I am a little confused by Clayton's and Carl's most recent postings on
> concord. Both seem to take Matthew 12:6 as a case of apparent lack of
> concord. But meizon in this verse is not an attributive or predicate
> adjective, but is rather a substantival adjective i.e. it functions as a
> noun. It doesn't strictly speaking have either grammatical concord or
> discord with anything in the clause. The relevant issue here, it seems to
> me, is what factors enter into play when a Greek speaker assigns gender to
> substantival adjectives. Here Clayton's hunch seems to fit the context.

James,

You are correct of course. Concord is the wrong word to use when discussing
MEIZON in Mat. 12:6. However there is an expectation, is their not, that a
person (Jesus Christ) will not be the referent of a neuter adjective
functioning as a substantive. This expectation does not fall under the rules
of concord. I don't know what name is given to this expectation. But this
expectation is violated in Mat 12:6 for reasons that have already been
discussed. I think it was this expectation that led to the scribal
"correction" to MEIZWN, the scribes not understanding how MEIZON was being
used.

-- 
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

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