From: Christopher Hutson (crhutson@salisbury.net)
Date: Mon Aug 24 1998 - 10:46:08 EDT
Matthew and David,
The text you present of Luther's translation of Rom 3:28 seems like a
straightforward rendering of the Greek to me.
"So we conclude that a person is justified through faith alone without
works of the law."
I see nothing in Luther or in the Greek about "word only," and I am
confused really about the original question. What exactly was the
proposal in your Sunday School class yesterday? Was this an idea
expressed in his commentary on Romans? I have only an abridged
edition of that at hand. Perhaps you can check Luther's commentary on
Romans and see if he made some such point.
Hope this helps.
XPIC
------------------------------------
Christopher R. Hutson
Hood Theological Seminary
Salisbury, NC 28144
crhutson@salisbury.net
------------------------------------
----------
>From: "One of the McKays" <music@fl.net.au>
>To: Biblical Greek <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
>Subject: Re: The word alone in Romans 3:28
>Date: Mon, 24 Aug 1998 21:59:02 +1000
>
>G'day Mathew You asked:
>
>... whether Martin Luther include the word "alone" in Romans 3:28 I
would
>like to know if there is any justification for including the word
alone in
>Romans 3:28.
>
>Here is the 1984 edition of Luther's Bible in loco:
>So halten wir nun dafŸr, da§ der Mensch gerecht
>wird ohne des Gesetzes Werke, allein durch den Glauben.
>
>
>Does anyone read German? I am guessing that "ohne" is equivalent to
"only"
>or "alone."
>
>Am I right?
>
>David McKay
>music@fl.net.au
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