From: Dan Ebert (dellbert@buckeyenet.net)
Date: Mon Sep 21 1998 - 17:04:15 EDT
My reason for asking about the Holy Spirit and grammar really had
nothing to do with the fact the word 'spirit' has a nuetral gender. It
really had more to do with the use of the 'definite article' with it. I
just noticed with the word "Father" when in relation to God, the
definite article rarely is missing. The same is true of the word "Son"
when in relation to Jesus Christ. However, I have noticed that the
"Spirit" or "Holy Spirit" when in relation to God's Holy Spirit, many
times has it missing. It appears that the English translators have had
to insert the 'definite article' in the English many times where it
would naturally occur if the "Holy Spirit" were a Being or Person. Now I
know that Greek and English are different in this regard, I was just
wondering if there is any significance to this difference between the
way Father, Son and Holy Spirit are designated with the definite
article? I am not looking for a theological debate at all, just some
honest grammatical evaluations.
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