Re: Galatians 2:17

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Sat Dec 12 1998 - 14:57:18 EST


"Lemuel G. Abarte" wrote:
>
>Is Paul being technical here concerning the phrase DZTOUNTES
DIKAIWQHNAI EN CRISTWi?
>Is he using the term justification in the sense he used it in Romans?
>

There are two subjects that never get resolved on b-greek. One is how to
approach verb aspect the other is how to approach lexical semantics.

Your question raises several other questions. Is Paul "being technical"
in his use of DIKAIOW in Romans? What exactly do we mean when we call
DIKAIOW a technical term? Do we mean that all the theological tradition
from Augustine, through Luther, Calvin, Bezae, Jonathan Edwards, Charles
Hodge to John Murray is somehow cumulatively represented in the term
DIKAIOW as it is used in Romans?

I am not saying this is what you mean by "technical", but it seems to be
what a lot of other people mean when the discuss DIKAIOW in Paul's
letters.

Another question. Does Paul use DIKAIOW in the precisely the same sense
in the several places it appears in Romans? If not, which use of DIKAIOW
in Romans do you want to compare to Gal 2:17?

This is just the beginning of asking questions to clarify your question.

Having looked at Gal 2:17 I would suspect that there is a significant
semantic relationship between the way it is used here and the use Paul
makes of this word in Rom. 3-5. But I think that saying there is a
significant semantic relationship is somewhat different than calling it
a "technical term." I think that the concept of a technical term is one
that requires some close scrutiny because it seems to imply an absolute
semantic identity for the various instances of DIKAIOW. Even in Romans
3-5 I think it would be somewhat reckless to assert an absolute semantic
identity for DIKAIOW.

Undoubtedly a number of people will think this is nit picking.

-- 
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

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