From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (jgibson000@mailhost.chi.ameritech.net)
Date: Thu Mar 18 1999 - 08:51:31 EST
"Carl W. Conrad" wrote:
> Inasmuch as Josephus writes in Rome and under a good deal of Roman
> (Flavian?) influence, it would hardly surprise me if Latin FIDES and its
> political associations has a good deal to do with the way he's using
> PISTIS. I hasten to add, however, that I haven't looked directly at how
> Josephus in fact DOES use PISTIS--I just would suspect that Roman thinking
> might have some bearing on his usage.
>
Carl,
Is this argument reversable (if that's the correct term)? That is to say, is Paul's
use of PISTIS in Romans (or for that matter in any Epistle to a group within a Roman
polis) influenced by what he knew his Roman influenced *readers* would understand by
the term?
Jeffrey
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