RE: Acts 20:28 Whose blood?

From: Bill Ross (wross@farmerstel.com)
Date: Mon Mar 29 1999 - 14:12:43 EST


{Carl}
(b) Is it God (the father)? It seems a bit strange for the text to be
saying, "God (the father) acquired the church of God through his own
blood,"--doesn't that sound strange? I think that's a legitimate way of
understanding the Greek text, but I still don't think it is quite right;

{Bill}
The fact that the "normal" way of saying one's "own blood," and neither was
the "normal" syntax for "own Son," press me to seek an understanding of the
term IDIOU that was used.

I understand the meaning of this as "relating to onesself" and take the
meaning in context to imply that the blood was not out of God the Father's
body, but related to God. Thus God incurred cost through blood that was
*personal* to Him. In the same way ought the Ephesians to be prepared to
suffer *personal* loss to shepherd the flocks of God.

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