From: Jack Kilmon (jkilmon@historian.net)
Date: Mon May 17 1999 - 11:44:13 EDT
I am convinced that Luke was competent in Aramaic and used
Aramaic source material. If Luke came from Syrian Antioch as
some believe, he would know Aramaic. Look how he defines
the exclusive Aramaic idiom (xwbyn) in the LP as "sins" where
the Greek Speaking Matthean scribe uses "debts."
Fitzmyer, in his "Gospel According to Luke" catalogs the
Aramaisms in Luke, Vol I, p116.
Jack
"James P. Ware" wrote:
>
> After so many years of study there still seems to be no consensus on the
> origin of the heavily Semiticized style which is especially
> prominent in certain sections of Luke-Acts. It would seem that the
> explanation would have to lie in either (or, perhaps, both) 1) Luke's
> conscious imitation of LXX Biblical style, or 2) an Aramaic and/or Hebrew
> source(s). Is the question insoluble? Does any one on the list have any
> insights into this question?
>
> Jim Ware
>
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-- ______________________________________________taybutheh d'maran yeshua masheecha am kulkon
Jack Kilmon jkilmon@historian.net
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