From: James P. Ware (jw44@evansville.edu)
Date: Mon May 17 1999 - 09:41:02 EDT
After so many years of study there still seems to be no consensus on the
origin of the heavily Semiticized style which is especially
prominent in certain sections of Luke-Acts. It would seem that the
explanation would have to lie in either (or, perhaps, both) 1) Luke's
conscious imitation of LXX Biblical style, or 2) an Aramaic and/or Hebrew
source(s). Is the question insoluble? Does any one on the list have any
insights into this question?
Jim Ware
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