From: Perry L. Stepp (plstepp@flash.net)
Date: Mon May 17 1999 - 14:23:01 EDT
>Chapters 1-2 of Luke seem to be especially LXX-like in their style. The
>only way we can say whether this is because Luke imitates the LXX or
>because Luke is himself a semite.
Keep in mind that some syntactical investigations (and here I'm thinking
especially of Raymond M. Martin) have given us good reason to believe that
Acts 1-8 are "translation Greek," i.e., the syntax seems to indicate that
these materials were originally written in Aramaic (or even Hebrew) and then
translated into Greek. I don't really remember if Martin addressed Lk 1-2,
but I wonder if some of the same phenomena might be at work.
PLStepp
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Senior Pastor, DeSoto Christian Church, DeSoto TX
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Ph.D. Candidate in Religion, Baylor University
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Does it not concern us that God's name is often
dishonored because of poor theologies of God?
--Clark Pinnock, *The Openness of God*
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