From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Thu Jun 24 1999 - 11:40:04 EDT
Dear B-Greekers,
Why must the 3rd person, imperfect, active, indicative verb ELEGEN be
understood as a instantaneous imperfect in Mark 8:24?
KAI ANABLEYAS ELEGEN: BLEPW TOUS ANQROPOUS hOTI hWS DENDRA hORW
PERIPATOUNTAS.
8:24 Then he looked up and kept saying, "I am seeing men, because as
trees I am perceiving walking."
The context would, to me, seem to support this translation if, due to the
blind man's confusion, he kept repeating himself. Is this impossible? Or
just highly improbable? Or within the realm of reason? Wallace has used
this as an example of the instantaneous imperfect and 18 English
translations I have checked appear to agree, although there are some
textual variants that have either the aorist or {historical} present form,
the TR uses the same form as Nestle. I should probable stop asking this
question why, it sure slows up the process.
Jay Adkins
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