From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Mon Jul 12 1999 - 12:40:12 EDT
On Mon, 12 Jul 1999 09:22:07 -0500 "Edgar M. Krentz" <emkrentz@mcs.com>
writes:
>This is a very interesting thread. I wonder, however, whether some of
>these statistics might not be deceptive. I think that it should be
>restricted to the indicative mood. For example, one would get a
preponderance >of aorist infinitive forms of LAMBANW over present and
perfect infinitives,
>simply because that is the infinitive form of preference.
>
>At the least, Daniel, I would be interested in knowing the statistics
>for the different moods. The rarity of any perfect infinitives would
skew
>the interpretation, IMHO. ;-)
I agree, Edgar. It would be very interesting to compare the ratios
of perfect indicatives/aorist indicatives in the Classics, the LXX,
and the GNT. I would like some evidence to support the thesis
that the aorist is increasingly assuming the functions of the
perfect and pluperfect, at least in the indicative mood.
Paul Dixon
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