From: Guy Lipkins (paideutes@iol32.com)
Date: Mon Aug 30 1999 - 11:30:44 EDT
Pondering a question for a possible upcoming article; Is the Septuaginta
"authoritative" or simply "accommodative" or both. I did a research paper
on Gen.12:1-3 "The Call of Abraham" employing the Septuaginta (as my Hebrew
is virtually nil. My professor gave me an "A" but,in his comments, he
stated; "though your exposition, application and exegegis was excellent, I
questioned the validity/accuracy of your use of the LXX,to stress your
position. I would be more comfortable had you used a "hebrew based help"
such as "Keil & Delitzsch" or "Theological Dictionary of the Old
Testament". My question is, If the LXX is the Bible that Jesus used, was
it authoritative and binding, or did He merely use it to accommodate the
"Hebraically Challenged" populous. Your comments and thoughts will be
greatly appreciated.
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