From: Steve Puluka (spuluka@hotmail.com)
Date: Thu Sep 02 1999 - 08:19:04 EDT
<x-flowed>My curiosity has been peaked by the mention that the Latin Vulgate follows
the Hebrew and not the Greek text for the Old Testament. My obviously
rattled memory seemed to recall that reading Catholic translations in
English rendered disputed verses according to the Greek.
I quick look at the verse Isaiah 7:14 confirmed that while my memory was
flawed in some ways the Catholic text in English does indeed follow the
Greek.
LXX (Brenton edition published by Hendrickson)
Therefore the Lord shall give you a sign; behold, a **virgin** shall
conceive in the womb and bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name
Emmanuel.
Greek word parqenos
Tanakh (Jewish Publication Society, 1985)
Assuredly, my Lord will give you a sign of His own accord! Look, the
**young woman** is with child and about to give birth to a son. Let her
name him Immanuel.
Hebrew word almah
The copies I have of Roman Catholic English translations follow the Greek
not the Hebrew. If the Vulgate is a translation of the Hebrew and is
accepted as the text for Roman Catholics why do they follow the Greek in
disputed verses? Does anyone have access to the Vulgate text? What is the
Latin translation in the Vulgate for this verse?
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