From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Sep 01 1999 - 09:46:49 EDT
<x-rich>At 6:38 AM -0500 9/1/99, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>At 1:49 AM -0700 9/1/99, Al Kidd wrote:
>>My question is: Why did Greek settle on a periphrastic construction
for the
>>Future Perfect Active when the concept of using a true Future
Perfect
>>Active was not unknown to them (e.g., TEQNXW = I shall be dead, I
shall
>>have died)?
> [quite a bit omitted]
>I've checked Smyth on the future perfect and shall forward to the
list
>later either what's really relevant to this question or at least the
URLs
>to permit anyone who is interested enough to check it out for him or
>herself.
For those who want to check this out, the relevant sections in the
online <color><param>0000,7777,0000</param>version of Smyth's Greek
Grammar (1st edition) at the Perseus website are:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/text?lookup=smyth+580&vers=english&browse=1
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/text?lookup=smyth+658&vers=english&browse=1
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/text?lookup=smyth+1955&vers=english&browse=1
</color>I don't find anything here that runs counter to what I argued
about probable reasons for the periphrastic (as opposed to the
inflected) form of the future perfect being much more common.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
</x-rich>
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