From: George Goolde (goolde@mtnempire.net)
Date: Sat Sep 25 1999 - 19:47:12 EDT
<x-flowed>Is it not fair to say that WHY a Greek text means a certain thing is the
product of one's hermeneutics? I frankly still do not see how it is
possible to separate the interpretation of a given text from the
principles which underlie one's process of interpretation. For example, we
may identify a certain word as a Genitive, but how we interpret it (what we
think it means) and how we describe it (what kind of a genitive we call it)
come, do they not, from principles of interpretation and/or
pre-understandings we bring to the text?
Carl, I agree with you that what benefits us most is not a simple YEP! or
NOPE! but the logic behind it. And for me, as a lifelong
learner, understanding that process is of much greater help than someone's
pontification that announces the ultimate truth about the grammatical
construction in question.
What think ye all?
George
George A. Goolde
Professor, Bible and Theology
Southern California Bible College & Seminary
El Cajon, California
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