From: Steven Craig Miller (scmiller@www.plantnet.com)
Date: Thu Oct 14 1999 - 07:43:55 EDT
To: George, Clayton, Carl, et al.,
George Goolde: << ... But as Carl also pointed out in another post, GAR
always has the force of explaining what preceded. >>
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew: << Always is a very inclusive word. Does GAR
really always have this force? >>
Carl W. Conrad: << I'm from Missouri, Clay; can you show me where it
DOESN'T have an implicit, "That's because ..." sense? >>
At Mt 27:23 we find: TI GAR KAKON EPOIHSEN; The NRSV translates GAR as
'why': "Why, what evil has he done?" Instead of "explaining what preceded,"
here it asks a question about what preceded. <g>
-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller@www.plantnet.com
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