John 8:58 (I am; Does the Hebrew reveal?)

From: Grant (grant@cajun.net)
Date: Thu Dec 23 1999 - 22:03:19 EST

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  When I first posed the question, I did not realize the amount of
understandings under one passage. I think that this specific verse shows
the "difficulty"--though not impossible--of translating without "theology."
Yet, I think that a small degree of the "problem" lies in the connection
with Exodus 3:14 which is rather self evident. Some argue the connection
while others interpret in light of no connection.

    Of course, we know what the LXX reveals, namely, hO WN. However,does
the Hebrew itself reveal a change from the "I am" interpretation so that we
may narrow the understandings of John 8:58 somewhat?
**I am** (comic relief :+) aware that Hebrew has (pardon my ignorance if I'm
incorrect) two conditions of verbs rather than tenses-- the perfect and
imperfect condition of a verb. Simply (if that's possible), what tense was
Exodus 3:14 mentioned? New approach?

grant polle
USA 

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