From: J.K. Aitken (jka12@cus.cam.ac.uk)
Date: Thu Feb 03 2000 - 13:45:38 EST
M. Casey, Aramaic Sources of Mark's Gospel (Cambridge, 1998), argues that
the repeated use of PALIN in Mark reflects an Aramaic background, but I
unfortunately cannot remember what precisely was the Aramaic he saw in
this. But the sense would be the same as those explanations given by
earlier respondents to the question on B-Greek. One can also read about
this in Casey's exchange in a recent (early 1999) edition of Expository
Times.
In general I do not find Casey's arguments convincing, but it may
be of interest for PALIN, even if it is John's Gospel in this case.
Jim Aitken
On Thu, 3 Feb 2000, Wieland Willker wrote:
> Jo 4:54:
> TOUTO DE PALIN DEUTERON SHMEION EPOIHSEN O IHSOUS ELQWN EK THS IOUDAIAS EIS
> THN GALILAIAN
>
> What is the meaning of PALIN here?
>
>
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