From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Thu Feb 10 2000 - 11:12:13 EST
In a message dated 02/09/2000 9:29:12 AM Pacific Standard Time,
pender@wfu.edu writes:
<< The same idiom holds in Greek: "Day
speaks to day" is fine in Greek, but English would more likely say "One
day speaks to the next." >>
Dear Mary:
No one, so far, has questioned the translation/paraphrase offered by Bart.
The issue is whether or not such a translation fits in with the context and
whether or not the resulting translation makes sense, at all. I would be
interested to know how you believe a day/night could speak/impart knowledge
to a day/night that was not present. This, to me, seems particularly odd,
even in a poetic text, when in the context shows that the recipients of the
speech/knowledge are those on the earth, as I mentioned in my last post to
Carl.
Greg Stafford
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