From: Dan Parker (stoixein@sdf.lonestar.org)
Date: Thu Feb 24 2000 - 05:09:26 EST
>
> To: Joe A. Friberg,
>
> << What John calls LOGOS *refers to* the preincarnate Christ ... >>
>
> That is a theological assertion. No where does John use the phrase
> "preincarnate Christ." In fact, the Johannine gospel makes it very clear
> that John's LOGOS is not Jesus. According to the Johannine Gospel, Jesus says:
>
> "I do know him and I keep his word" (Jn 8:55c NRSV).
>
> -Steven Craig Miller
> Alton, Illinois (USA)
> scmiller@www.plantnet.com
Steven, I don't know if I missed much on this thread, for I saw many,
many posts on this subject, but it would seem that it IS John's opinion
that LOGOS is one of the names of God's Son from Rev 19:13 for KEKLHTAI
TO ONOMA AUTOU hO LOGOS TOU QEOU. Does'nt it seem that John uses the
term LOGOS with more than one sense?
Sincerely,
Dan Parker
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