From: CWestf5155@aol.com
Date: Fri Mar 10 2000 - 01:05:00 EST
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From: CWestf5155@aol.com
Full-name: CWestf5155
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Date: Fri, 10 Mar 2000 01:03:29 EST
Subject: Re: 1 P. 3:18-22
To: gtrott@juno.com
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Some scholars have felt that there are definite patterns that indicate that
this was a quotation of an early hymn. But the view that this refers to a
hymn on Christ's descent into hell was at least equally driven by a perceived
lack of coherence between v. 18 and v. 19. Suggesting that this was part of
an early creed that the readers were familiar with provides a context in
which the two verses would track.
The position that this is a hymn is exclusive of the recognition of the Book
of Enoch as the literary context for the passage. If this were a reference
to Enoch, then this would not be taken as a hymn where Christ descended into
hell. Rather it would be a reference to Noah's or Enoch's preaching during
the time of the flood.
Cindy Westfall
PhD Student
Roehampton
In a message dated 3/8/100 5:07:23 PM EST, gtrott@juno.com writes:
<< On Wed, 08 Mar 2000 14:55:40 +0000 "Maurice A. O'Sullivan"
<mauros@iol.ie> writes:
>Looking at 1 Peter 3, in Greek and English, I notice that the printed
>
>editions of both the NRSV and the NJB, choose to follow the layout of
>N/A
>27 in indenting -- and italicizing -- vv. 10-12, as befits a Psalm
>quotation,
>
>But when it comes to vv. 18-19, neither English version makes any
>typographical distinction, whereas N/A 27 again indents ( without
>italicization, this time ).
>
>It's only a small point, but have you any idea why N/A should indent
>vv. 18-19?
Just an idea, but some scholars see a creed-like formula present in these
verses, similar to what is in 1 Timothy 3:16. N/A indents it similar to
how they indent 1 Timothy 3:16, since the original audience may have
perhaps seen it as a "kind-of quotation."
>>
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