From: Wayne Leman (wleman@mcn.net)
Date: Sat Apr 01 2000 - 12:39:06 EST
<x-charset iso-8859-1>The ultimate question, of course, is what did KOSMOS mean to its original
authors and hearers. Linguistically, it is unlikely that it anything to do
with any one particular group of people. Anything else is interpretation,
valid at some later point in the process of understanding scripture but
premature for understanding what the original text actually said and meant.
It is my understanding that on this discussion list we try to separate
linguistic understanding of the source text from our interpretations of that
text. I appreciate Kevin's making sure that we understand that he has
referred to his *interpretation* of KOSMOS.
FWIW and IMO, the best *interpretations* of the source text flow from the
best linguistic understandings of that text. If we get the heart before the
course (so to speak!), we get perilously close to those murky waters of
eisogesis.
Wayne
--- Wayne Leman Bible translation site: http://bibletranslation.lookscool.com/>This is the standard interpretation of some Reformed scholars, because of >their belief that Christ's death was intended to be only for the elect in >both sufficiency as well as in effiency. If one holds to a strict view of >limited atonement as many Calvinists do, then _kosmos_ must refer to the >elect. I hold to a _unlimited_ view of the atonement, but holds that the >application of the atonement is only for the elect. > >Kevin
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