1 John 2:8

From: Brian Swedburg (brian@discoveryhills.org)
Date: Wed Apr 19 2000 - 18:13:14 EDT

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Greetings B-Greekers,
I am making my first attempt at discourse analysis in 1 John. As I
"whittle away" at and revise my perspective on the hierarchy of the
letter, I think I may be shooting you some questions. So...

- In 2:8, the author refers to a ENTOLHN KAINHN GRAFW . I am baffled
as to what that command is. 2:15 would be my shot in the dark. What do
you think?

- What is the rhetorical function of 2:12-14, in the structure of the
letter, and why the switch from present indicative to aorist in GRAFW /
EGRAPSA?

Thankful for this fellowship,
Brian

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Next message: Harold R. Holmyard III: "Re: 1 John 2:8"
Previous message: Bill Ross: "RE: John 1:1-3 in Koine set to music"
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