From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (jgibson000@mailhost.chi.ameritech.net)
Date: Thu Apr 20 2000 - 12:06:49 EDT
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Michael Ryle wrote:
<blockquote TYPE=CITE> <span class=592363114-20042000><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>Mark
15:34 reports that Jesus cried out in a loud voice: ELWI ELWI LEMA SABACQANI;
The Jerome Commentary indicates that this is an Aramaic version of Psalm
22:2. For a long time I have have been curious about this passage.
Why does Jesus quote the Hebrew scriptures in Aramaic? On the cross
under the extreme stress of the moment did he spontaneously translate the
psalm as he knew it into his own spoken language? Or was he quoting
from an Aramaic source, a targum? If so, why would he quote from
that instead of the Hebrew which he surely would have known? In the
gospels when Jesus quotes scripture, except for this one case, I believe
it's true that he always does so in Greek -- at least I can't think of
another instance. Why is this case different and what does it mean?
I'm curious to know if anyone else has wondered about this.</font></font></span></blockquote>
<p><br>You might wish to take into account the possibility that what appears
to be Jesus' normal practice to quote Greek Scriptures is due to the fact
that this is simply a convention of the Evangelists, since they have him
teaching in Greek as well (how else to convey to a Greek speaking audience
what Jesus said?), but is not what historically was the case.
<p>May I suggest that you also raise this question on XTalk (www.xtalk.org),
the discussion List on the Historical Jesus and Christian origins, and/or
on Kata Markon (http://metalab.unc.edu/GMark)?
<p>Yours,
<p>Jeffrey Gibson
<br>--
<br>Jeffrey B. Gibson
<br>7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
<br>Chicago, Illinois 60626
<br>e-mail jgibson000@ameritech.net
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