From: Bill Ross (wross@farmerstel.com)
Date: Thu Apr 20 2000 - 12:00:23 EDT
<x-charset iso-8859-1><Michael>
>>Mark 15:34 reports that Jesus cried out in a loud voice: ELWI ELWI LEMA
SABACQANI; The Jerome Commentary indicates that this is an Aramaic version
of Psalm 22:2. For a long time I have have been curious about this passage.
Why does Jesus quote the Hebrew scriptures in Aramaic? On the cross under
the extreme stress of the moment did he spontaneously translate the psalm as
he knew it into his own spoken language? Or was he quoting from an Aramaic
source, a targum? If so, why would he quote from that instead of the Hebrew
which he surely would have known? In the gospels when Jesus quotes
scripture, except for this one case, I believe it's true that he always does
so in Greek -- at least I can't think of another instance. Why is this case
different and what does it mean? I'm curious to know if anyone else has
wondered about this.
<Bill>
A couple of thoughts:
* I don't think He was quoting a psalm, but rather posing a question to His
God;
* One reason it may have been preserved in the Aramaic is to show how those
around might have mistook it as being a call to Eli
Bill Ross
PS Does anyone know the nuances of the words LEMA SABACQANI in the Aramaic?
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