From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Thu Apr 27 2000 - 13:50:23 EDT
At 10:16 AM -0700 4/27/00, Michael Hildenbrand wrote:
>Please excuse this question if it has been discussed already. I have a
>friend asking me about the relationship of the two clauses in this
>verse: "I do not allow a woman to teach nor (oude) exercise authority
>over a man..."
> The question comes with regard to the relationship of the two
>clauses and *oude*. Does the not allowing "a woman to teach" only relate
>to the "man," [that is the sentence is stating that the woman cannot teach
>a *man* but can teach women and children] could it be that the first
>clause stands independently, and thus a woman is simply not allowed to
>teach. He is affirming the latter, but I cannot figure an objective way
>to either deny or affirm his exegesis.
> I am well aware of the ramifications of this question and I am
>quite aware of the other passages that relate to this question. I am
>concerned with the syntax of the sentence.
>
>Michael Hildenbrand
Michael: You may find it useful to read through the last big go-round that
we had on this verse and its problem(s) in our archives: October 16-19,
1999, the subject-headers being "1 Timothy 2:12" and "Re: 1 Timothy 2:12
authentein." Alternative possibilities were discussed then, and some of it
did have to do with how the structure of clauses here must be understood.
And there's no reason why the whole thing couldn't be hashed out
anew--perhaps something new may emerge, but in any case, what you say in
your final sentence is critical: it is the syntax of the sentence that is
important here.
--Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
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