From: Michael Hildenbrand (hildenbr@Haas.Berkeley.EDU)
Date: Thu Apr 27 2000 - 13:16:27 EDT
Please excuse this question if it has been discussed already. I have a
friend asking me about the relationship of the two clauses in this
verse: "I do not allow a woman to teach nor (oude) exercise authority
over a man..."
The question comes with regard to the relationship of the two
clauses and *oude*. Does the not allowing "a woman to teach" only relate
to the "man," [that is the sentence is stating that the woman cannot teach
a *man* but can teach women and children] could it be that the first
clause stands independently, and thus a woman is simply not allowed to
teach. He is affirming the latter, but I cannot figure an objective way
to either deny or affirm his exegesis.
I am well aware of the ramifications of this question and I am
quite aware of the other passages that relate to this question. I am
concerned with the syntax of the sentence.
Michael Hildenbrand
--- B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:41:07 EDT