From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Sat Apr 29 2000 - 11:26:27 EDT
On Sat, 29 Apr 2000 20:44:40 +1000 "B. Ward Powers"
<bwpowers@eagles.com.au> writes:
>
<snip>
>
> If we see that 1 Timothy 2 and other related passages are
> discussing the
> relationship within a marriage, as set out most fully in Ephesians
> 5:21-33E, then this will keep up from drawing an invalid and
> unjustified
> conclusion to the effect that Paul affirms a requirement for all
> women to
> submit to all men, and never to teach them. Realizing this will in
> turn
> show that the question of a restriction upon women to teaching other
> women
> and children simply does not arise: Paul says that reliable people
> (men and
> women) are to be entrusted with the ministry of teaching others (men
> and
> women) - see 2 Timothy 2:2 (in the Greek).
>
Even if 1 Tim 2 is discussing the relationship within a marriage, that
would
still leave open the question of whether a woman should teach or hold
authority over other men in the church.
Your argument then hangs on your interpretation of 2 Tim 2:2. You seem
be be saying
PISTOIS ANQRWPOIS in 2 TIm 2:2 necessarily includes women, as well
as men, and that hETEROUS necessarily includes both men and women.
That seems a mighty big assumption to me.
Paul Dixon
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