From: Biblical Greek digest (b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu)
Date: Mon May 01 2000 - 00:00:02 EDT
Biblical Greek Digest for Sunday, April 30, 2000.
1. RE: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
2. Re: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
3. FREE - PUBLIC DOMAIN - Coptic True Type font
4. RE : Gal 2:20 - to the son
5. Re: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
6. Gal 2:20 - to the son
7. 1 John
8. Re: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
9. Re: 1 John
10. Re: 1 John
11. RE: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
12. re:NT Greek verbs
13. Teaching Top Down Analysis
14. Re: Teaching Top Down Analysis
15. 1Cor 7:5
16. Re: 1Cor 7:5
17. Re: Teaching Top Down Analysis
18. Re: Teaching Top Down Analysis
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: RE: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
From: "Bill Ross" <wross@farmerstel.com>
Date: Sat, 29 Apr 2000 23:19:34 -0500
X-Message-Number: 1
<Harold>
Bill, please check BAG (Bauer, Arndt, & Gingrich) under ZAW at definition
3. ZAW can mean "live" of the conduct of life. BAG mentions that in this
signification ZAW is used with adverbs and other modifiers. It specifically
lists EV PISTEI at Gal 2:20. You are limiting the sense of the word ZAW too
much.
<Bill>
I stand corrected on this.
One can modify ZAW and create an indiom that has the sense of "conduct".
Let me rephrase my original point:
The word ZAW primarily denotes "to live, to be posessed of vitality, to
exercise the functions of life". In many instances it appears in English to
be idiomatic but is not, resulting in important misunderstanding. Case in
point, Romans 1:17:
It is not "The just person shall conduct himself faithfully"
but rather
"He who through faith is righteous shall live"
Bill Ross
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
From: "Steven R. LoVullo" <sundoulos1@netzero.net>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 01:07:42 -0500
X-Message-Number: 2
Bill,
I think you are right about Romans 1: 17 in light of Paul's teaching on
justification by faith in Romans, where the emphasis is on imputation of
righteousness. However, the author of Hebrews appears to be using Habakkuk
2: 4 in the sense of "conduct," i.e., "the one who is righteous will live
(his life) by faith in me." The surrounding context, as well as the whole of
the epistle with its emphasis on enduring to the end without turning back,
confirms this understanding. For example, it is an "evil, unbelieving
(APISTIAS) heart that falls away from the living God" (3:12). It is "those
who through faith (PISTEWS) and patience inherit the promises" (6:12). The
author and his readers "are not of those who shrink back to destruction, but
of those who have faith (PISTEWS) to the preserving of the soul" (10:39; cf.
1 Peter 1:5). Indeed, the heroes of OT times "died in faith (PISTIN),
without receiving the promises, but having seen them and having welcomed
them from a distance, and having confessed that they were strangers and
exiles on the earth" (11:13). And there is no contradiction if we realize
that faith is dynamic, so that the initial faith that results in
justification to life perseveres in ongoing trust in God throughout the
Christian life.
Steve LoVullo
----- Original Message -----
From: Bill Ross <wross@farmerstel.com>
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, April 29, 2000 11:19 PM
Subject: RE: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
> <Harold>
> Bill, please check BAG (Bauer, Arndt, & Gingrich) under ZAW at definition
> 3. ZAW can mean "live" of the conduct of life. BAG mentions that in this
> signification ZAW is used with adverbs and other modifiers. It
specifically
> lists EV PISTEI at Gal 2:20. You are limiting the sense of the word ZAW
too
> much.
>
> <Bill>
> I stand corrected on this.
>
> One can modify ZAW and create an indiom that has the sense of "conduct".
>
> Let me rephrase my original point:
>
> The word ZAW primarily denotes "to live, to be posessed of vitality, to
> exercise the functions of life". In many instances it appears in English
to
> be idiomatic but is not, resulting in important misunderstanding. Case in
> point, Romans 1:17:
>
> It is not "The just person shall conduct himself faithfully"
>
> but rather
>
> "He who through faith is righteous shall live"
>
> Bill Ross
>
>
> ---
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----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: FREE - PUBLIC DOMAIN - Coptic True Type font
From: "Mr. Gary S. Dykes" <yhwh3in1@lightspeed.net>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 2:4:52
X-Message-Number: 3
Coptic44 is now available to the world. No need to worry about copyrights
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Go to the site below to download. Enjoy.
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----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: RE : Gal 2:20 - to the son
From: Suedaleg@aol.com
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 03:41:52 EDT
X-Message-Number: 4
Thanks for all the help and extra insight. I learned a few things I had not
seen before. I failed to notice ( or forgot ) that PISTIS is feminine.
The dicussion of ZAW is interesting. I did not think of its importance in
this passage, though I had noticed it in past. Paul quotes Hab 4:2 three
times: Rom 1:17, Gal 3:11 (connected by context to the verse in question) and
Heb 10:38 (if Paul wrote Hebrews) In each of these one of the key words is
emphasized by the context: Romans - the righteous ; Galations - live ;
Hebrews - faith . This makes an interesting study on the nature of the life
lived in faith.
I have another related question here. Since this is a quotation of a Hebrew
text, does the hebrew word for "live" carry the same possible meanings spoken
of in Bill and Harold's discussions?
Thanks again
Dale Greenlee
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
From: Mike Sangrey <mike@sojurn.lns.pa.us>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 07:44:55 -0400
X-Message-Number: 5
Bill Ross <wross@farmerstel.com> said:
> The word ZAW primarily denotes "to live, to be posessed of vitality,
> to exercise the functions of life". In many instances it appears in
> English to be idiomatic but is not, resulting in important
> misunderstanding. Case in point, Romans 1:17:
> It is not "The just person shall conduct himself faithfully"
> but rather
> "He who through faith is righteous shall live"
I usually take Romans 1:17 as dual meaning. The reason for my thinking is
APOKALUPTETAI EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN. I think of EK PISTEWS as the doorway of
faith we step *out* of leading *into* the hallway of faith. My thinking is
Paul takes a clause hO DE DIKAIOS EK PISTEWS ZHSETAI which by itself would be
ambiguous and by adding the previous clause, succinctly captures two major
doctrines--justification and sanctification.
FWIW,
--
Mike Sangrey
mike@sojurn.lns.pa.us
Landisburg, Pa.
There is no 'do' in faith, everywhere present within it is 'done'.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Gal 2:20 - to the son
From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard@ont.com>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 06:51:24 -0500
X-Message-Number: 6
Dear Dale,
You asked:
>I have another related question here. Since this is a quotation of a
>Hebrew text, does the hebrew word for "live" carry the same possible
>meanings spoken of in Bill and Harold's discussions?
The Hebrew verb for "live" in Hab 2:4, source of the quote in Rom
1:17, Gal 3:11, and Heb 10:38, is X-Y-H. In the older lexicon, BDB, Hab 2:4
is listed under the following meaning: "sustain life, live on or upon [with
the preposition (L], of the animal life, by the sword (Gen 27:40), by bread
(Deut 8:3); elsewhere in pregnant sense of fulness of life in divine favor,
sustained by [with the preposition (L] everything that issueth out of the
mouth of God (Deut 8:3); his promises (?) Isa 38:16; of the wicked man, by
repentance (Ezek 33:19); with the preposition B. by the statutes and
judgments of the Lord if a man do them (Lev 18:5; Ezek 20:11, 13, 21, 25;
Neh 9:29); a righteous man by his faithfulness shall live (Hab 2:4)."
Since the preposition B. occurs in Hab 2:4, perhaps the closest
comparable uses of the verb would be those in Lev 18:5 ; Ezek 20:11, 13,
21, 25; Neh 9:29. It is of interest, therefore, that Paul cites Lev 18:5 in
Gal 3:12, right after citing Hab 2:4 in Gal 3:11.
The sense of "live" in Lev 18:5 seems clearly to be "sustain life" or
"enjoy the fulness of life in divine favor." Leviticus 18:5 reads: "And you
will keep My decrees and my laws; the man who does them also will live by
them. I am the Lord" (BTW, the Hebrew preposition "by," like the Greek EN,
can also mean "in"). Ezekiel 20:11, 13, 21, 25 seem to repeat the sense of
Lev 18:5 in almost a quote the first three times, and in a modification of
the quote the last time (to the negative). Nehemiah 9:29 is also
essentially a quotation of Lev 18:5. Thus it is quite possible that Heb 2:4
may be an allusion to Lev 18:5.
In Heb 2:4 the word translated "faith" in the NIV is listed in BDB as
):EMWNFH and has the sense "firmness, steadfastness, fidelity." BDB lists
"trust" alongside "faithfulness" as a possibility for human conduct, but
sometimes the older translations used "trust" in the sense of something
entrusted, which the Hebrew means in a couple of places. BDB might have
been thinking of Hab 2:4 when it listed "trust" as a possible sense for the
Hebrew, because the KJV uses "faith" at Hab 2:4. However, I do not see one
clear example where the noun means "trust" in the sense of "faith" unless
it is Hab 2:4. On the other hand, the verbal form of the root can mean
trust or believe.
Habakkuk 2:4 reads: "See, puffed up, not upright, is his soul within
him, but a righteous man by His faith will live." These words in context
may suggest for ):EMWNFH an idea like "steadfastness" or "faithfulness" in
living according to the standards set by the Lord. Thus it would be in
conformity to the sense in Lev 18:5. Habakkuk has just spoken of a
revelation that speaks concerning the end but which might linger. A person
was to wait for it, since it would not in fact be late in coming (Hab 2:3).
So Habakkuk may have suggested the need for steadfastness in doing right
while awaiting the Lord's accomplishment of His will. Such faithfulness, of
course, would be an exhibition of trust in the Lord.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: 1 John
From: "Brian Sullivan" <navillusbpi@primus.com.au>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 6:54:15
X-Message-Number: 7
A few months back Greg Kilbrai suggested 1 John was a good bible book to
start off in reading Greek. Hence, as I have time, I have begun to attempt
a translation of this work, for the shear pleasure of it, as well as for
the practice.
My question is: what Greek issues in this bible book fascinate you as
fellow b-Greekers? Are there particular passages that you feel worthy of
extra comment?
I am very interested in your views.
Your's most Sincerely,
Brian Sullivan
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 09:01:09 -0500
X-Message-Number: 8
At 7:44 AM -0400 4/30/00, Mike Sangrey wrote:
>Bill Ross <wross@farmerstel.com> said:
>> The word ZAW primarily denotes "to live, to be posessed of vitality,
>> to exercise the functions of life". In many instances it appears in
>> English to be idiomatic but is not, resulting in important
>> misunderstanding. Case in point, Romans 1:17:
>
>> It is not "The just person shall conduct himself faithfully"
>
>> but rather
>
>> "He who through faith is righteous shall live"
>
>I usually take Romans 1:17 as dual meaning. The reason for my thinking is
>APOKALUPTETAI EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN. I think of EK PISTEWS as the doorway of
>faith we step *out* of leading *into* the hallway of faith. My thinking is
>Paul takes a clause hO DE DIKAIOS EK PISTEWS ZHSETAI which by itself would be
>ambiguous and by adding the previous clause, succinctly captures two major
>doctrines--justification and sanctification.
I've heard it argued (or read--and I'm not sure where in all that I've read
on this passage one place or another) that Paul understood ZHSETAI in the
sense "will have life in the age-to-come"--i.e., will have ZWHN AIWNION,
the assumption being that this is Paul's response to the question (Mt
19:16) TI AGAQON POIHSW hINA SCW ZWHN AIWNION--or the phrase EIS ZWHN
EISELQEIN (Mt 18:8) or the phrase ZWHN KLHRONOMHSAI. This may have been in
Nygren's commentary on Romans, but there are so many places it could have
been. What makes this seem the more probable to me is the antithesis
APOKALUPTETAI hH DIKAIOSUNH QEOU AND APOKALUPTETAI hH ORGH QEOU right at
the beginning of the exposition in Romans--in which case then the focus
would be on the apocalyptic crisis, the impending judgment, and the basis
for "entering into life." It is interesting to see how broad is the range
of meanings of ZAW that people want to read this text
to indicate.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: 1 John
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 09:28:05 -0500
X-Message-Number: 9
At 6:54 AM -0500 4/30/00, Brian Sullivan wrote:
>A few months back Greg Kilbrai suggested 1 John was a good bible book to
>start off in reading Greek. Hence, as I have time, I have begun to attempt
>a translation of this work, for the shear pleasure of it, as well as for
>the practice.
>
>My question is: what Greek issues in this bible book fascinate you as
>fellow b-Greekers? Are there particular passages that you feel worthy of
>extra comment?
I think that the single primary reason for recommending 1 John may have
less to do with specific qualities about its Greek other than the book's
being short and the Greek probably easier or at least as easy as any other
in the Greek NT. Actually it may be deceptively easy: the basic sense of
almost every verse is immediately transparent to anyone who understands the
basics learned in as little as a semester of Greek, and yet there are
questions that arise almost as soon as one gets beneath the surface.
The first four verses of chapter 1, for instance, do seem transparent in
sense, yet diagramming that unit's syntax can be quite a challenge.
Certainly it's a wonderful and memorable sequence, and there are several
others in 1 John, of which I'll mention only a couple of my own favorites
(I'm sure other list-members will have their own favorites):
4:20 EAN TIS EIPHi hOTI AGAPW TON QEON KAI TON ADELFON AUTOU MISHi, YEUSTHS
ESTIN.
4:18 FOBOS OUK ESTIN EN THi AGAPHi ALL' hH TELEIA AGAPH EXW BALLEI TON
FOBON, hOTI hO FOBOS KOLASIN ECEI, hO DE FOBOUMENOS OU TETELEIWTAI EN THi
AGAPHi.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: 1 John
From: clayton stirling bartholomew <c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 09:03:26 -0700
X-Message-Number: 10
on 04/30/00 6:54 AM, Brian Sullivan wrote:
> My question is: what Greek issues in this bible book fascinate you as
> fellow b-Greekers?
Brian,
The simplicity of 1 John is only at the phrase and clause levels of
analysis. When you start to analyze the higher level structures you will
find that this book is somewhat of a challenge. If I were going to study
this book my goal would be to try and understand the high level semantic and
pragmatic organization of the book. This task will involve some reading of
theory beyond the traditional texts used in seminary level NT Greek.
There is a tendency when one is fairly new to NT Greek to stay buried
forever in the details of low-level analysis (morphology, clause level
syntax, lexical analysis, etc.). I would suggest that you do the low level
analysis, which is certainly necessary, but not stop there. If you stop
there you really will not understand the book of 1 John or any other book
for that matter.
Good reading, 1 John is a great text.
Clay
--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: RE: Gal 2:20 - to the Son
From: ben.crick@argonet.co.uk (Ben Crick)
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 17:18:15 +0100
X-Message-Number: 11
On Sat 29 Apr 2000 (23:19:34), wross@farmerstel.com wrote:
> The word ZAW primarily denotes "to live, to be posessed of vitality, to
> exercise the functions of life". In many instances it appears in
> English to be idiomatic but is not, resulting in important misunderstanding.
I have been much intrigued by the use of the infinitive ZHN in Philippians
1:21, EMOI GAR TO ZHN CRISTOS KAI TO APOQANEIN KERDOS.
To be EN CRISTWi is for Paul the definition of TO ZHN.
ERRWSQE
Ben
--
Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
<ben.crick@argonet.co.uk>
232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: re:NT Greek verbs
From: yochanan bitan <ButhFam@compuserve.com>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 14:59:00 -0400
X-Message-Number: 12
tw Pete Slevin cairein
a Greek 501 verbs isn't a bad idea.
Of course, such would be more useful for an unlimited corpus of Roman Koi=
ne
period texts. =
Limiting such a work to the "NT" and/or attested forms could result in mo=
st
paradigms having more blank squares than filled ones.
501 is a lot of verbs and the whole point of such an endeavor would be to=
list or show 'everything', =
to reinforce learning by seeing everything repeat and repeat and repeat. =
and to generate forms for accidently unattested forms. I suspect that suc=
h
would be more user friendly for students than Mounce's morphology, though=
that has it's place, too.
Greek itself has a relatively high number of irregular verbs. =
For example, compare the usefulness of a collection like the irregular
verbs at the end of Goodwin's old grammar (over 600) and Smyth (over700).=
But they only list principle parts. =
This can be a little frustrating for composition classes, =
not to mention someone trying to guess =
preferred Koine forms: =
MNHMONEUSAI or MNHSQHNAI 'to remember'?, =
CEIN or CUNNEIN 'to pour'? ktl. [kai ta loipa].
I wonder if one of those working with Stanley Porter on Hellenistic tools=
will undertake some pedagogical things like this? =
errwso
Randall Buth
en tois Ierosolumois
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Teaching Top Down Analysis
From: clayton stirling bartholomew <c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 12:48:14 -0700
X-Message-Number: 13
The way NT Greek was taught 25 years ago seems to have produced a lot of
perennial minutiaologists. Folks who spend the lions share of their
exegetical efforts on constituents at the clause (?sentence?) level and
below.
I read a statement recently by one of our list members that once we grasp
the significance of the higher levels of discourse structure the teaching of
biblical languages will never be the same again. (This is a loose
paraphrase).
Discourse analysis of biblical languages is over a quarter of a century old
and I cannot detect that the teaching of biblical languages has changed
much. Why not?
The current crop of seminary students still seem to be convinced that the
real "payoff" in exegesis is found in lexical analysis (word studies) and
clause level syntax analysis. Why is this still the case?
Has anyone integrated "top down" analysis into the core curriculum so that
students start right of from the beginning thinking of biblical texts as a
student of music theory would think of Igor Starvinsky's "Right of Spring?"
One would not attempt to understand "Right of Spring" by analyzing a few
bars of it somewhere in the middle. But we do this kind of thing in NT Greek
all the time. Why?
--
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: Teaching Top Down Analysis
From: clayton stirling bartholomew <c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 12:50:45 -0700
X-Message-Number: 14
on 04/30/00 12:48 PM, clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:
> "Right of Spring"
Should be "Rite of Spring"
Clay
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: 1Cor 7:5
From: Dmitriy Reznik <reznik1@juno.com>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 17:25:29 -0400
X-Message-Number: 15
Dear friends,
Could you please help me to understand the syntax of EI MHTI AN of 1Cor
7:5? Though I get the idea what it says about, still I don't know the
role of each of the parts of this phrase. For example, if EI MH means
"unless", what is the role of TI and AN?
Thank you in advance.
Dmitriy Reznik
________________________________________________________________
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----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: 1Cor 7:5
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 16:39:22 -0500
X-Message-Number: 16
At 5:25 PM -0400 4/30/00, Dmitriy Reznik wrote:
>Dear friends,
>
>Could you please help me to understand the syntax of EI MHTI AN of 1Cor
>7:5? Though I get the idea what it says about, still I don't know the
>role of each of the parts of this phrase. For example, if EI MH means
>"unless", what is the role of TI and AN?
Text: MH APOSTEREITE ALLHLOUS, EI MHTI AN EK SUMFWNOU PROS KAIRON, ...
As EI MH regularly does mean "unless" or "if not," I think that what we
have here is simply the the indefinite TI attached as an enclitic to the MH
limiting the force of the "except" or "unless": "except to some extent
..."; AN must govern an elliptical APOSTERHTE ALLHLOUS carried forward from
the imperative clause which precedes, so that it is equivalent to EAN MH TI
APOSTERHTE ALLHLOUS--an AN is required with the subjunctive in this
conditional construction which is implicit, even if it is not fully
expressed.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: Teaching Top Down Analysis
From: Jonathan Robie <Jonathan.Robie@SoftwareAG-USA.com>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 22:07:57 -0500
X-Message-Number: 17
At 12:48 PM 4/30/00 -0700, clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:
>The current crop of seminary students still seem to be convinced that the
>real "payoff" in exegesis is found in lexical analysis (word studies) and
>clause level syntax analysis. Why is this still the case?
Because in their churches, at conferences, and on the radio, when a
preacher says "now in the original Greek..." what follows is usually
lexical analysis. And that, in turn, is at least partially because lexical
analysis is easier, requiring relatively little real understanding of Greek
- especially if it is merely mediocre lexical analysis, the good stuff is,
of course, harder, but rarer.
We've had a fair amount of clause level syntax analysis on B-Greek, and I
think that the interaction with real experts has made this a very
approachable place for many relative beginners to get exposed to clause
level analysis. It's certainly done that for me.
Jonathan
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Re: Teaching Top Down Analysis
From: "Joseph A. Weaks" <jweaks@delta.is.tcu.edu>
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2000 22:06:28 -0500
X-Message-Number: 18
Carl, KTL,
As a beginning Ph.D. in New Testament, have ye a suggested resource
on Discourse Analysis as we are discussing it here? (book, web
resource, personal notes).
I'm doing a seminar on Classical Rhetoric with Richard Enos in the
Fall, and would value this background as I begin.
Thanks,
Joe
At 10:07 PM -0500 4/30/00, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>At 12:48 PM 4/30/00 -0700, clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:
>
>>The current crop of seminary students still seem to be convinced that the
>>real "payoff" in exegesis is found in lexical analysis (word studies) and
>>clause level syntax analysis. Why is this still the case?
>
>Because in their churches, at conferences, and on the radio, when a
>preacher says "now in the original Greek..." what follows is usually
>lexical analysis. And that, in turn, is at least partially because
>lexical analysis is easier, requiring relatively little real
>understanding of Greek - especially if it is merely mediocre lexical
>analysis, the good stuff is, of course, harder, but rarer.
>
>We've had a fair amount of clause level syntax analysis on B-Greek,
>and I think that the interaction with real experts has made this a
>very approachable place for many relative beginners to get exposed
>to clause level analysis. It's certainly done that for me.
>
--
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
+ Rev. Joseph A. Weaks
+ Pastor, Bethany Christian Church, Dallas
+ Ph.D. Student in Biblical Studies, Brite Divinity
+ Minister of the Word
+ jweaks@delta.is.tcu.edu
+ http://delta.is.tcu.edu/~jweaks/
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
---
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This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:41:07 EDT