From: Jason Hare (parousia_occ@yahoo.com)
Date: Mon Jul 31 2000 - 00:56:07 EDT
I'm sorry that I take so long to reply. I have not really been staying
caught up with the posts. :-)
Anyway, about this verbless phrase (TON MH GNONTA hAMARTIAN hUPER hHMWN
hAMARTIAN EPOIHSEN), the 'to be' that is inserted so often in the English
is probably adopted from the verb-supplied phrase in the second part of the
verse: 'hINA hHMEIS GENWMEQA DIKAIOSUNH QEOU EN AUTWi.' So we see that 'he
(assumed "God") made the one not having known sin *to become* sin for us,
so that we might become the righteousness of God in him (i.e., in the one
who knew no sin).'
The point is that *to be* is justified because: (1) it is a verbless clause
and it is normal to insert equative verbs in verbless clauses and (2) *to
be* is adopted from *to become* (GINOMAI). Just some thoughts.
God bless,
Jason Hare
Ozark Christian College
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