From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Sep 12 2000 - 23:47:02 EDT
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To Jim or Dennis (I don't know who made these statements)
Concerning this:
>What one believes without empirical proof is
> > "faith".
I find this definition at odds with Romans 10:17 in this respect:
ARA hH PISTIS EX AKOHS hH DE AKOH DIA hRHMATOS CRISTOU (or, QEOU)
It seems to me that "faith" is strictly limited to the area of "divine
revelation."
That is, one can not have "faith" in the tooth fairy. Many
"believe" in the tooth fairy, but faith can not be directed
toward anything outside of divine revelation. Faith relates
to spiritual matters, does it not?
I think this might be a case of imposing the contemporary world's definition
of "faith" into a biblical discussion.
Concerning this:
> >But PISTIS does not mean the same thing as PISTEUWN ("believing", > >
> >which means you are in
> > the process of being persuaded something is true).
But PISTEUWN is used in John 3:16. Does this mean that eternal life is given
to those in the process of being persuaded, or those who have come to
believe?
Next: (This may require an OFFLIST response)
> >God is
> > the One who imparts faith, and He imparts it to the degree He wishes.
When Paul presented the gospel, I get the distinct impression he considered
unbelievers to have a choice. Why did he go to them at all? It seems to me
that if this is true, then Paul should have simply prayed that God would
dole out this faith to various people. Why not go directly to the one
responsible for providing faith?
Just seeking insight,
Mark Wilson
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