From: Brian Sullivan (bsullivan@dingoblue.net.au)
Date: Thu Oct 26 2000 - 00:23:39 EDT
Greetings to all,
Can anyone demonstrate Smarts rule applying outside the NT? It seems to me
that since the corpus was written in the common language of the day a
significant body of examples should exist as part of common speech.
Is anyone aware of any published statistical analysis?
Is there any research on Jewish literature written in Greek? It strikes me
that Jewish writing patterns would also have an influence. Perhaps this is
going beyond the scope of bGreeks emphasis on grammar, but it seems that
to understand phrases with such potentially explosive influence on
religious doctrine, we need to also know what how the same phrase, when
spoken to a first century Jew would have been understood.
What evidence do we have? Do we have any outside the NT?
Yours most sincerely,
Brian Sullivan
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