[b-greek] Re: The usage of TOU + Infinitive in Gal 3:10

From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (doulos@chorus.net)
Date: Sat Dec 02 2000 - 12:44:34 EST


On 12/2/00 9:07 AM, Steven Craig Miller wrote:

> I wonder if the confusion here is in part a common confusion between Greek
> grammar and English grammar? Here TOU with the infinitive is an
> epexegetical infinitive (cp. Robertson, 1086). Then the question one needs
> to ask is: how is it best to translate this into English? The translation
> "by doing them" makes perfect sense to me. How does one "abide by all the
> things written in the book of the law"? One does so "by doing them."

Craig,

While TOU with the infinitive can be epexegetical, it is hard for me to find
a suitable word in Gal 3.10 with which it might be associated in an
epexegetical relationship. According to Wallace the "epexegetical infinitive
clarifies, explains, or qualifies a noun or adjective." I don't really see a
noun or adjective here which is a good candidate for clarification,
explanation, or qualification by TOU POIHSAI. Since purpose and result are
the most common uses of the genitive articular infinitive, and since it
seems more natural to take TOU POIHSAI with the verb EMMENEI than with any
of the nouns in the sentence, I would suggest taking it as a genitive
articular infinitive of result. This fits well with Paul's thought in this
passage as well, for he is not concerned with the *means* by which all
things written in the book of the law are performed, or even the purpose one
has in mind in performing them, but the *actual performance* of them, i.e.,
ultimate perfect obedience to them. Those who do not abide in all things
written in the book of the law, resulting in the actual and ultimate
fulfillment of them, are under a curse. Paul is here result-oriented.

Steve


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