From: RHutchin@aol.com
Date: Sun Dec 03 2000 - 20:07:08 EST
Recently, I was presented with the following argument. The person cited A
Primer of Biblical Greek by N. Clayton Croy (Eerdmans, 1999) as stating,
"Biblical Greek, like English, had a 'near' demonstrative, hOUTOS, for
something relatively close in time, space or thought, and a 'far'
demonstrative, EKEINOS, for something relatively distant."
Based on this, the person argues that Jesus, by using the 'near'
demonstrative, hOUTOS, in Matt 24:34 could only have been referring to those
to whom he was physically speaking. Had Jesus wanted to refer to a future
generation, he would have had to use the word EKEINOS.
Is his argument valid?
Roger Hutchinson
RHutchin@AOL.com
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