From: Aaron Hunyady (ahunyady@ucsd.edu)
Date: Sun Dec 10 2000 - 17:52:43 EST
I have recently stumbled upon some people who insist that all
knowledgeable scholars agree that the word PAS always means "all" in an
all-encompassing sense. They are using this to support the doctrine of
universal salvation. An example is: 1 Ti. 4:10 "...the living God, who is
the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe."
[[Moderator's note: members will please ignore the theological aspect
of the question and restrict on-list responses to the lexicographical
question raised here. CWC]]
Their theory about PAS seems to be false, because of the meanings of the
word in verses such as 3 Jo. 1:12, Lu. 11:42, Mat. 10:22, and others.
My question: Am I correct in believing that PAS doesn't have to mean all
men who've ever existed, but instead can mean "some of every kind" or a
particular subset of "all" or something like that. Thanks in advance!
Cheers,
Aaron Hunyady
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