From: Steven R. Lo Vullo (doulos@chorus.net)
Date: Mon Dec 11 2000 - 10:10:53 EST
On 12/11/00 7:56 AM, Rodney J. Decker wrote:
> LEH, Lex./LXX, 1:214-15 lists hINA TI + ind. as indicating "to what end?
> why?" I don't find such a listing in BAGD, s.v. hINA (2d ed.--still waiting
> for BDAG to arrive!). Perhaps I missed it. Is this a common expression? I
> don't remember it in NT (and don't have my copy of Accordance accessible at
> the moment)--but that may just be my poor memory!
I did an Accordance search and came up with 149 occurrences of hINA TI in
the LXX (22 in Psalms) and 2 in the NT (Jn 13.29; Rom 1.11). However, the NT
occurrences are not the idiomatic usage as described above; the TI in these
cases is the object of a following verb. So, at least on first inspection,
it appears there are no cases of the above expression in the NT. In doing a
cursory inspection of the LXX results, though, it appears that they are
legitimate cases of the above expression, although there are some that
appear to have a slightly different nuance. Hope this helps.
Steve
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