From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Dec 27 2000 - 12:20:17 EST
At 10:13 AM -0600 12/27/00, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
>Dear Steve,
>
>If Greek grammar supposedly equates the questions in Luke 1:18 and 1:34,
>then it is time for somebody to clarify the context. Ben did that.
>
>Zacharias was asking for a sign that the predicted event would occur, since
>circumstances seemed against it. It is not really possible to read his
>comments without inferring doubt on his part.
>
>Mary was asking how the prophecy would occur. Her request for clarification
>as to the means of fulfillment could imply doubt on her part, but it is not
>necessary to read the words that way.
>
>The chastisement of Zacharias and the absence of chastisement for Mary
>suggests that in fact Mary's words did not imply doubt as to the truth of
>the prophecy.
>
>I do not see that we can divorce the interpretation of Greek from context.
Yet even this reply makes no reference whatsoever to the Greek text
involved; the original question and the response in question really
concerns the content of the questions asked without regard to what the
Greek text in each instance means (because what the Greek text means in
each instance is hardly in question). The question was about the deeper
implications of the text and not about the Greek. Let's keep our focus on
the Greek text, please.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
---
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