From: QashishaD@aol.com
Date: Sun Jan 07 2001 - 02:58:29 EST
In a message dated 6/01/01 7:09:42 PM, phos@prodigy.net writes:
>With that background, the question becomes, what does it mean to love
>Jesus, and what does it mean to tend his lambs. Did Jesus intend any
>semantic difference among agapao, phileo; bosko, poimano; probaton, arnion.
> Or was he just varying the language as a matter of style.
Bill, Cindy, nice thread here. I think it more accurate to ask what did John
wish to intend in these Greek semantic differences. A study of John's usage
of this style reveals contrasting images that are not so presented by the
synoptic writers. Moreover, the Syriac Gospel portrays this even to a greater
degree and have Jesus instructing "Feeds my lambs for me...feed my ewes for
me...feed my sheep for me."
Dimitri Grekoff
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