[b-greek] Re: Fwd: Meaning of the perfect tense

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Jan 09 2001 - 14:14:43 EST


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Cindy wrote:

-----
How does this differ from the traditional view? Well, if this perfect is
'completed action with abiding results' then with the use of the perfect,
one
would be able to infer and import into the statement the 'once saved always
saved' concept, as Reinecker does in reference to Schnackenburg does in I
Jn.
3:14 (METABEBHKAMEN EK TOU QANATOU EIS THN ZWHN): "The perfect tense
indicates the permanency of the step of salvation". So perseverance of the
saints could be born out by the tense if the traditional view is applied
here. But as Rod indicated, 'this has gone too far and read pragmatic
factors into the semantic value'. In other words, this passage is not about
the perseverance of the saints, and the grammar does not assume it.
-----

First I do not believe that this has read "pragmatic" factors into the
semantic value, rather it would be more accurate to say that this reads
"theological" factors into the semantic value, right?

Although I do not personally hold to perserverance as the Reformed folks do,
I think that Cindy may ALSO have gone too far in her statement,
grammatically speaking.

To say that "In other words, this passage is NOT [emphasis mine] about
the perseverance of the saints, and the grammar does NOT [emphasis mine
again] assume it," seems to go too far by eliminating a possible
implicature. In other words, this passage may not be about perserverance,
but grammatically, is it eliminate?!! That seems like a positive assertion
to me. It might be interpreted to mean that this use of the Perfect
"grammatically" eliminates (positive assertion) any implicature about
perserverance.

This seems to be swinging the pendulum too far back.

Mark Wilson


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