From: Kimmo Huovila (kimmo@kaamas.kielikone.fi)
Date: Wed Jan 10 2001 - 07:31:39 EST
Mark Wilson wrote:
>
> >At 5:02 PM +0200 1/9/01, Kimmo Huovila wrote:
> ----
> >The passive voice does not say whether the subject is passive or not. It
> >only describes what happens to the subject, whether from his own
> >initiative or someone else's. Or am I just missing the obvious here?
> -----
>
> Kimmo:
>
> With your above statement in mind, how do you define
> the difference between a Middle and Passive voice.
>
> Your definition above for a Passive is how I understand a Middle.
>
> Thank you,
>
> Mark Wilson
I think the middle makes the subject more salient. In the stronger form
("direct middle") it is reflexive, but it does not have to be so
emphatic ("indirect middle"). Originally the middle covered both passive
and middle functions. The passive may be a more specific development to
cover just the passive idea (which is not incompatible with the middle
idea, but has less salience on the subject), leaving the middle voice
without the passive function (thus bringing more salience for the
subject). It is not completely clear to me to what degree the semantic
differentiation was made, but presumably at least to some degree, since
the language cared to have two sets of ending with many words - why if
not for a functional purpose (different semantics)?
To illustrate this with English, if I am washing myself (middle), then I
am being washed (passive). The passive makes my own part in the washing
unexpressed, whereas the middle version is explicit about it.
I am no voice specialist (can't even sing ;-), and the above comment
reflects a somewhat
traditional view. I am interested in Carl's theory, and look at it
openly, but still I fail to see how EZHMIWTHN would contradict the more
traditional understanding (thanks, Carl, for your reply - I understand
that you take the -QHN as a middle, but perhaps I misunderstood you when
I thought that by the 'clear example' you meant a clear counter-example
to the traditional view?).
Kimmo
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