From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Thu Jan 18 2001 - 05:24:00 EST
Rev Nigel Hanscamp asks:
>Subject: Luke 4.18
>Body: APOSTEILAI TEQPAUSMENOUS EN AFESEI
>
>Can someone please explain why the APOSTEILAI seems to disappear in
>translation. BAGD and others explain this phrase APOSTEILAI ... EN
>AFESEI as if the APOSTEILAI didn't exist: "Free the oppressed."
It is best to read all of the DBAG in any given section at least. On page
121 item 2.b reads:
"When used w. other verbs, A. often functions like our verbal auxiliary
'have' and means simply that the action in question has been performed by
someone else...." Then after several other examples it reads, "A. EV
AFESEI set free Lk 4:18 (Is 58:6)."
Since the other examples say "he had" or in one case "sisters had" I
understand this as saying the phrase means that someone else "had set free
the oppressed." Which is interesting way to look at an aorist infinitive
that makes sense to me only if the aorist infinitive has a temporal aspect
to it. The only translation I have of the LXX where the phrase is the
same except that APOSTELLW is a present active imperative reads, "set the
bruised free." I hope someone else will address this further as my
confidence is low I that understand it either.
>Also, how does one get "oppressed" from a verb to mean "shatter"?
If we accept 'bruised' as an outcome of being struck down or shattered
then it seems to make some sense.
Louw & Nida says;
22.22: QPAUW; KATADUNASTEUW ; SUMPNIGW {c} (a figurative extension of
meaning employing the base PNIGW {a} `to choke,' 19.53) 1607 : to cause
serious trouble to, with the implication of dire consequences and probably
a weakened state - `to cause severe hardship, to oppress, to overwhelm.'
QPAUW : APOSTEILAI TEQPAUSMENOUS EN AFESEI `to set free the oppressed' or
`... the downtrodden' Luke 4:18 .
I hope this helped.
Sola Gratia,
Jay Adkins
Always Under Grace!
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