From: Alan B. Thomas (a_b_thomas@yahoo.com)
Date: Fri Jan 19 2001 - 01:49:11 EST
--- Mark Wilson <emory2oo2@hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> James 2:21
>
> ABRAAM hO PATHR hHMWN OUK EX ERGWN EDIKAIWQH
> ANENEGKAS ISAAK TON hUION AUTOU
> EPI TO QUSIASTHRION
>
> A commentary I consulted took EDIKAIWQH as "revealed
> [his] justification."
> As if to say that Abraham received justification
> long before he offered up
> Isaac; so this verse must be referring to a
> demonstration of that
> justification/righteousness.
>
> I realize there is a tendency for scholars to remove
> apparent contradictions
> in the Bible, but my question is whether or not THIS
> translation is
> acceptable?
Mark...
I think we do well to keep in mind that DIKAIOW did
not convey the idea, to the early Jews especially, of
some "entering into a justified state (salvation)." To
the Jew, it was more so thought of as an end-time
evaluation/verdict. It meant to be found innocent at
the final judgment based on faithfully keeping the OT
stipulations.
So, DIKAIOW refers to the KIND OF righteousness one
possessed and whether or not THAT DIKAIOW (SUNH) would
secure an innocent verdict in the end.
James here is demonstrating the KIND OF DIKAIOW
Abraham had. A Jew would not conceive of DIKAIOW apart
from ERGWN.
I would say that your commentary is right on with its
presentation of the bigger picture here.
=====
Sincerely,
Alan B. Thomas
"Just think how fast lightning would be
if it didn't zigzag."
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