From: Stephen C. Carlson (scarlson@mindspring.com)
Date: Mon Jan 29 2001 - 09:02:20 EST
At 08:01 AM 1/29/01 -0600, Steven Craig Miller wrote:
>One can find "Hysteron Proteron" mentioned in Smyth-Messing's grammar. But,
>the examples they give in no way appear similar to the examples of Phil 5
>and Mt 7:6. In addition, they list it as a figure of speech and not as
>something which can override normal Greek syntax. Both Chiasmus and
>Hysteron Proteron were familiar rhetorical figures of speech in ancient
>Greek literature. But I can't find any hint in classical grammars that they
>were ever used to override normal Greek syntax. Does any of the works which
>you've cited offer any justification for assuming that they can be used to
>override normal Greek syntax?
What makes you think that "normal Greek syntax" is overriden in
Matt 7:6? Putting aside Philem 5 (which is an arguable case),
I don't quite understand the objection to treating Matt 7:6 as
a chiasmus, when other factors, such as the senses of KATAPATHSOUSIN
and hRHCWSIN, so indicate (as supported by Davies & Allison in
their magisterial commentary). Perhaps a clarification of the
objection would be helpful.
Stephen Carlson
--
Stephen C. Carlson mailto:scarlson@mindspring.com
Synoptic Problem Home Page http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/
"Poetry speaks of aspirations, and songs chant the words." Shujing 2.35
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