[b-greek] Word order, 1 Tim. 2:12, and John 21

From: Steve Godfrey (sgodfrey@irk.ru)
Date: Mon Feb 19 2001 - 08:24:33 EST


Dear Iver, Moon-Ryul, Carl, and others,

It may be helpful to think of words and their order like fish. They do have
certain tendencies, but aren't always predictable in their behavior nor
orderly in their movements (except for the German ones). In fact, many of
us, for emphasis, resort to unpredictable usage. The fish simile also
represents my input to our recent contributor from Kazakstan re: John 21 as
well as his admirer.

Exegesis must involve both science (objectivity) and art (perspective). One
cannot understand Shakespeare by distilling his top ten preferred principles
of usage: one understands Shakespeare by spending time reading him.
Shakespeare's meaning is objective (at least in the sense of being
intentional and determinate) - but only via an interaction of induction
coupled with interpretation. One implication for NT study, as others have
recently suggested, is that there is no substitute for reading as a means of
insight into the text. Another implication might be that exegesis alone
cannot determine authorial intent: hermeneutics plays a major role.
Specialization can increase yield, but when it results in a loss of
perspective, it may also lead to a loss of significance.

Regarding the question of women and authority and 1 Tim 2:12, where would
you direct me to pursue hermeneutical aspects as well as the interaction of
exegesis and hermeneutics?

Sincerely,

Steve Godfrey
Irkutsk, Siberia



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