From: Dave Washburn (dwashbur@nyx.net)
Date: Wed Feb 21 2001 - 08:37:44 EST
> >
> > Mark,
> > >
> > > Acts 2:14a
> > >
> > > STAQEIS DE hO PETOS SUN TOIS hENDEKA EPHREN THN QWNHN AUTOU KAI APEFQEGXATO
> > > AUTOIS
> > >
> > >
> > > Only a few verses earlier, Luke notes in verse 4 that KAQWS TO
> > PNEUMA EDIDOU
> > > APOFQEGGESQAI AUTOIS.
> > >
> > > Would it seem that Luke is implying that the speech Peter stands up to give
> > > was
> > > given in similar fashion as those earlier utterances of Acts 2, namely, was
> > > Peter "speaking in tongues" as he uttered this speech?
> > >
> > I tend to doubt it. The word simply means "something to say."
> > The only thing the word would possibly indicate is that the Spirit
> > was giving him the message, but he doesn't seem to be speaking
> > in tongues here. My own speculation is that Peter gave the
> > speech in either his native tongue or Greek, and the others, via
> > their speaking in tongues, translated the speech as it went along.
> > But I won't go to the wall for that idea :-)
> >
> Now, that's a novel understanding of Acts 2:14 from 2:4 - LALEIN hETERAIS
> GLOSSAIS. It is quite impossible to discuss glossolalia without straying into
> theology, so I only suggest that people look up the concept in a good dictionary
> or, better, ask someone who has experienced it. I could discuss it off-list, if
> you want.
I'm not sure I follow your line of thought. I was commenting on the
meaning of the word that was was asked about and saying that it
doesn't necessarily imply "in tongues." I have no interest in getting
into the theological aspects of the phenomenon. The question
was, does the word APEFQEGXATO indicate that Peter was doing
glossolalia here?
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"No study of probabilities inside a given frame can ever
tell us how probable it is that the frame itself can be
violated." C. S. Lewis
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