From: Dave Reigle (reigles@paonline.com)
Date: Wed Mar 21 2001 - 12:19:03 EST
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<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Dear B-Greek,</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>My question concerns the use of a singular HTIS and
ESTIN in the following excerpt from Eph 3:13</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>TAIS QLIYESIN MOU UPER UMWN HTIS ESTIN DOXA
UMWN</FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>The singular HTIS ESTIN seems to be referring to
the plural QLIYESIN. I always thought this was taking sufferings as a kind
of collective noun so the singular HTIS ESTIN was alright. Most newer
translations read as if ETIS ESTIN is plural.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>I was impressed with Carl Conrad's statement about
the abilities of the KJV translators; I'm so used to playing down the KJV
because of textual problems and archaic language, that I hadn't thought
much about the skill of the translators. My interest was aroused, so
I checked, and the KJV takes it as singular. Did they know something
we don't, or were they being over-literal? Or is my thinking of QLIYESIN
as a collective noun just sloppy thinking? Thanks for your
help.</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Dave Reigle</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>Elizabethtown, PA</FONT> </DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
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